Demonstration 1 of 4
Two-part tariff with two member types
With a high-demand and a low-demand member, which membership fee and visit price earn the most?
A fee extracts surplus without distorting use, but one fee must suit both types. Keeping the low type caps the fee at its surplus, so the seller raises the usage price to tax the high type's extra visits instead.
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The high type's inverse demand is 20 - q and the low type's 12 - q, in dollars per visit. Each visit costs 4. F is the monthly fee and p the usage price; F is set so the low type just joins.
Predict first. Does any inclusive tariff beat serving only the high type?
Choose an example
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Constructed example: the chapter's hypothetical gym (demands 20 - q and 12 - q, cost 4, usage prices 4, 8 and 12); a usage price of 6 is added for comparison.
Calculated values
- Membership fee F
- $8.00
- High-type visits
- 12
- Low-type visits
- 4
- Profit serving both
- $80.00
- Profit serving only the high type
- $128.00
Keeping the low type requires F = (12 - 8)^2 / 2 = 8.00. Fees bring 16.00 and the usage margin (8 - 4) x 16 brings 64.00, for 80.00. This is the best inclusive tariff. Serving only the high type at F = 128 and p = 4 earns 128, more than any inclusive tariff.
Worked steps
- F = (12 - 8)^2 / 2 = 8.00
- Visits: 20 - 8 = 12 and 12 - 8 = 4
- Fees 2 x 8.00 = 16.00; usage margin (8 - 4) x 16 = 64.00
- Profit = 16.00 + 64.00 = 80.00
- Compare with 128 from the high type alone
Use the idea
With heterogeneous customers, compare the best tariff that keeps everyone with simply serving the high-value segment at full extraction.
Where the conclusion applies
Two members with known linear demands, one common tariff and no outside option beyond not joining.
Check your understanding: At p = 6, what fee and profit result?
Chapter 34 source: section "Two-part tariff".
Demonstration 2 of 4
Damaged-good versioning
How much should a seller degrade its basic version, and how does that depend on the gap between buyers?
Every unit of low-version quality lets the high type gain theta_H - theta_L by imitating, so the seller must leave that rent. A wide gap makes the rent so costly that the low version is degraded to nothing.
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Two equally weighted buyers value quality q at theta q; theta_L = 4 and theta_H is the control. Quality costs q^2/2 per buyer and the premium version keeps quality theta_H. t_L and t_H are payments.
Predict first. As the type gap shrinks (theta_H falls toward 6), does the low version get better or worse?
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Constructed example: the chapter's hypothetical software menu (theta_L = 4, theta_H 10 and 6); theta_H of 7 and 8 are added for comparison.
Calculated values
- Low-version quality q_L
- 0
- Low payment t_L
- 0.00
- Premium payment t_H
- 100.00
- High type's information rent
- 0.00
- Seller profit
- 50.00
With theta_H = 10, profit is 50.00 + (-2) q_L - q_L^2/2, maximized at q_L = 0. Payments are t_L = 0.00 and t_H = 100.00, and profit is 50.00. Each unit of low quality saves at least as much high-type rent as it earns from the low type, so no useful low version is offered.
Worked steps
- Profit = 10^2 / 2 + (8 - 10) q_L - q_L^2 / 2
- Slope at zero is -2, so q_L = max(0, -2) = 0
- t_L = 4 x 0 = 0.00; t_H = 10^2 - 6 x 0 = 100.00
- Profit = 50.00 + (-2) x 0 - 0.00 = 50.00
Use the idea
Read a stripped-down basic tier as a screen: its quality falls as premium buyers value quality far more than basic buyers.
Where the conclusion applies
One-dimensional private information, single crossing, equal type weights and quadratic cost.
Check your understanding: At theta_H = 7, what low quality is offered?
Chapter 34 source: section "Versioning".
Demonstration 3 of 4
Bundling and correlated values
When does selling two tools only as a package earn more than pricing them separately?
Bundling helps when buyers disagree about the parts but agree about the whole: adding offsetting values makes willingness to pay less dispersed. Aligned values stay dispersed after adding.
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Ada and Ben each value tools A and B; marginal cost is zero. A buyer takes the bundle when the sum of the two values is at least the bundle price.
Predict first. Does bundling still help when values are positively aligned?
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Constructed example: the chapter's hypothetical Ada and Ben (offsetting and aligned values, bundle prices 60, 120 and 180); the partial pattern and a bundle price of 150 are added.
Calculated values
- Best separate revenue
- $180
- Bundle buyers
- 2
- Bundle revenue
- $240
Ada values the pair at 90 + 30 = 120 and Ben at 30 + 90 = 120. At a bundle price of 120, 2 of 2 buy and revenue is 120 x 2 = 240, more than the best separate revenue 180.
Worked steps
- Package values: 90 + 30 = 120 and 30 + 90 = 120
- Buyers at 120: 2, revenue 120 x 2 = 240
- Best separate prices earn 180
Use the idea
Before bundling, check whether customers' values for the components are negatively correlated.
Where the conclusion applies
Two buyers, zero marginal cost, pure bundling only and buyers who purchase when indifferent.
Check your understanding: In the partial pattern, what does a 150 bundle earn?
Chapter 34 source: section "Bundling".
Demonstration 4 of 4
Lerner rule and residual demand
How does the markup over cost respond to the elasticity of the demand a firm faces?
At the profit-maximizing price the markup ratio equals one over the absolute elasticity. A substitute that lowers residual demand makes demand more elastic at the chosen price and squeezes the markup.
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P is dollars per dose and Q thousands of doses per month; the demand intercept and marginal cost are the controls and the slope stays 0.5. L = (P - MC)/P is the Lerner index and epsilon the price elasticity of demand.
Predict first. Does a lower demand intercept raise or lower the markup ratio?
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Constructed example: the chapter's hypothetical specialist medicine (intercepts 100 and 80, cost 20); intercepts 90 and 120 and costs 30 and 40 are added for comparison.
Calculated values
- Quantity Q (thousand)
- 80
- Price P
- $60.00
- Lerner index L
- 0.667
- Elasticity
- -1.500
- 1 / |elasticity|
- 0.667
- Operating profit ($ million)
- 3.20
Setting MR = MC gives Q = 100 - 20 = 80 thousand and P = 60. The Lerner index is (60 - 20) / 60 = 0.667, equal to 1/|epsilon| with epsilon = -1.500. Operating profit is 3.20 million.
Worked steps
- MR = MC: 100 - Q = 20, so Q = 80
- P = 100 - 0.5 x 80 = 60
- L = (60 - 20) / 60 = 0.667
- epsilon = (-2) x 60 / 80 = -1.500, so 1/|epsilon| = 0.667
- Profit = (60 - 20) x 80,000 = 3.20 million
Use the idea
Use the Lerner index to read how much pricing power a firm has, remembering it reflects the residual demand the firm faces.
Where the conclusion applies
Linear residual demand, constant marginal cost and an interior, uniform, unconstrained price.
Check your understanding: At a = 120 and c = 40, what are P and L?
Chapter 34 source: section "Lerner inverse-elasticity pricing rule".