Demonstration 1 of 4
Review before treatment
When does paying an independent reviewer save money?
Patients cannot judge whether treatment is needed, so who screens and how they are paid matters. A review is worth its fee when the procedures it prevents cost more than the reviews.
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A diagnostic signal is positive for 28 patients, 10 sick and 18 healthy. A procedure costs 20,000. Review costs a fee per positive case and removes some false positives without missing a sick patient.
Predict first. Does an expensive review (3,000 per case) that removes 12 false positives still save money?
Choose an example
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Constructed example: the book's hypothetical values are 28 positives, procedure 20,000, review 1,000 or 100 and 12 false positives removed; a review cost of 3,000 and 6 or 18 removals are added.
Calculated values
- Automatic treatment
- 560,000
- Review cost
- 28,000
- Procedures after review
- 16
- Reviewed total
- 348,000
- Saving
- 212,000
Hypothetical teaching values, not clinical or market data. Reviewing each of the 28 positives at 1,000 removes 12 false positives, leaving 16 procedures. The reviewed rule costs 28,000 + 16 x 20,000 = 348,000 against 560,000, so review saves 212,000. The review addresses hidden clinical quality, not the pooling of expenditure.
Worked steps
- Automatic: 28 x 20,000 = 560,000
- Review: 28 x 1,000 = 28,000; procedures 28 - 12 = 16
- Reviewed: 28,000 + 16 x 20,000 = 348,000
- Saving = 560,000 - 348,000 = 212,000
Use the idea
Value a second opinion by the procedures it removes times their cost, minus its fee on every case reviewed, and check the reviewer's own incentives.
Where the conclusion applies
Review removes false positives only and never misses a sick patient; the reviewer is not paid per procedure.
Check your understanding: At a review cost of 3,000 removing 6 false positives, what is the total cost?
Chapter 94 source: section "Arrow medical-care uncertainty principle".
Demonstration 2 of 4
The premium spiral
When does losing low-risk members drive the premium up again, and can reinsurance stop it?
A premium priced to the average attracts those who expect to claim more. If low-risk members leave, the average rises and more leave. Lowering the cost of high-risk members can hold the price below the renewal threshold.
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The plan has 400 high-risk members with expected claims of 8,000 and low-risk members with 2,000. The premium covers average claims of those who renew. Reinsurance lowers the plan's effective high-risk cost. As in the chapter's robustness check, the low-risk members who remain after the first exit are assumed to renew only below 4,500.
Predict first. With 300 low-risk renewals, does reinsurance that cuts the high-risk cost to 6,000 stop the spiral?
Choose an example
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Constructed example: the book's hypothetical values are 400 high-risk members at 8,000 or 6,000, low-risk claims 2,000, renewals 600, 300 and 100 and the 4,500 threshold; a cost of 7,000 is added.
Calculated values
- Members
- 700
- Next premium
- 5,429
- Change from 4,400
- +1,029
- Spiral
- Continues
Hypothetical teaching values, not clinical or market data. With 300 low-risk members renewing and a high-risk cost of 8,000, the break-even premium is (300 x 2,000 + 400 x 8,000) / 700 = 5,429, above the 4,500 renewal threshold, so further low-risk exit is predicted. Each price change alters who stays, which sets the next price.
Worked steps
- Claims = 300 x 2,000 + 400 x 8,000 = 600,000 + 3,200,000 = 3,800,000
- Premium = 3,800,000 / 700 = 5,429
- 5,429 against 4,500: above
Use the idea
Judge a stabilization policy by the premium it produces relative to actual renewal thresholds, not by its effect on average claims alone.
Where the conclusion applies
No loading, all high-risk members renew, and a single renewal threshold of 4,500 for the low-risk members who remain after the first exit.
Check your understanding: With 300 renewals and a high-risk cost of 7,000, is the premium below 4,500?
Chapter 94 source: section "Health-insurance adverse-selection death spiral".
Demonstration 3 of 4
Depreciation, technology, and health spending
Why can unchanged medical spending go with falling health?
Health is a stock that depreciates. Spending buys investment through a technology, so the same spending can maintain, raise or lower health depending on depreciation and technology.
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H is the health stock (80 now), delta its depreciation rate, M medical input in hundreds of units, and I = A sqrt(M) health investment with technology coefficient A.
Predict first. If depreciation rises to 0.20 and spending stays at 4, where does health go?
Choose an example
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Constructed example: the book's hypothetical values are H = 80, delta 0.10 and 0.20, A = 4 and 8 and M = 4, 9 and 16; combinations not worked in the chapter are added.
Calculated values
- Investment I
- 8.00
- Next-period health
- 80.00
- Required investment
- 8.00
- Maintenance M
- 4.00
Hypothetical teaching values, not clinical or market data. With depreciation delta = 0.10, technology I = 4 sqrt(M) and medical input 4 hundred, investment is 8.00 and next-period health is 0.90 x 80 + 8.00 = 80.00: health is maintained exactly. Holding health at 80 needs M = 4.00.
Worked steps
- I = 4 x sqrt(4) = 8.00
- H_t+1 = 0.90 x 80 + 8.00 = 72.00 + 8.00 = 80.00
- Maintenance: 4 sqrt(M) = 0.10 x 80 = 8.00, so M = (8.00 / 4)^2 = 4.00
Use the idea
Measure spending, investment, depreciation and health separately before calling rising spending wasteful or flat spending adequate.
Where the conclusion applies
A square-root investment technology and a constant depreciation rate within the year.
Check your understanding: With delta = 0.20, A = 4 and M = 9, what is next-period health?
Chapter 94 source: section "Grossman health-capital model".
Demonstration 4 of 4
Coinsurance and extra visits
How many low-value visits does insurance add, and what do they cost in resources?
Insurance lowers the price the patient sees below the resource cost, so patients use visits worth less than they cost. Higher coinsurance trims those visits but shifts financial risk back to the patient.
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q is follow-up visits, P_o the out-of-pocket price (coinsurance rate times the 200 resource cost). The six visits have marginal benefits 300, 240, 180, 120, 60 and 20.
Predict first. Moving from 25 to 50 percent coinsurance removes how many visits?
Choose an example
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Constructed example: the book's hypothetical values are demand q = 6 - 0.02 P_o, cost 200, benefits 300 to 20 and coinsurance of 25, 50 and 100 percent; zero coinsurance is added.
Calculated values
- Out-of-pocket price P_o
- 50
- Visits q
- 5
- Visits beyond efficient
- 3
- Resource gap
- 240
Hypothetical teaching values, not clinical or market data. At 25 percent coinsurance the patient pays 50 per visit and demand is 6 - 0.02 x 50 = 5 visits. Only the first 2 are worth their 200 resource cost, so 3 extra visits cost 600 and yield 360, a gap of 240. The gap is not the whole welfare effect, because insurance also protects against an uncertain bill.
Worked steps
- P_o = 0.25 x 200 = 50
- q = 6 - 0.02 x 50 = 5
- Extra visits cost 3 x 200 = 600 and yield 180 + 120 + 60 = 360
- Gap = 600 - 360 = 240
Use the idea
Estimate the utilization response to cost sharing, value the extra care against its resource cost, and weigh that against the risk protection lost.
Where the conclusion applies
Linear demand fixed by illness, a fixed provider price and stated marginal benefits.
Check your understanding: With full insurance (zero coinsurance), how many visits and what resource gap?
Chapter 94 source: section "Ex-post moral hazard in health insurance".